Since an action occurs in either case, what is the difference between an act preceded by a thought and an act which is not preceded by a thought?
I cannot find a difference between these two - I have gone back to our previous discussions about choice and decision making and how "we have looked at choice/decision making and found no entity whatsoever in charge of choosing or deciding - and when I look again this is true - I'm not sure why I have been making this so complicated.
Since an action occurs in either case, what is the difference between an act preceded by a thought and an act which is not preceded by a thought?
Of course there is no difference e.g. - whether the arm lifts without a thought or whether the arm does not lift with a thought, it is just lifting or not lifting in the flow of experience.
What is it that divides actions up into "things that just happen" and "things that happen after a thought"
If I come back to my direct experience of what is arising in the 6 senses, whether a thought arises before something happens or not, it makes no difference to the action happening - it still happens. So when I have an interpretation/commentary about there being a difference this is faulty and secondary experience.
What is it that insists a thought is necessary for some actions to occur?
Hmmm - I have been subjecting myself to a faulty interpretation, and somehow have got bogged down with it - hence the frustration.
I have been looking all day and seeing more clearly that when division happens, separation from the flow of experience also happens, which of course means that unknowingly I have been subjecting myself to faulty interpretations - makes one wonder about the many layers to this there must be.
KM